Are the matchings the New Testament tries to make with Ancient Testament exact?
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We find in the Christian book called New Testament, a large number of texts or stories being presented as the fulfillment of prophecies of the Old Testament (Christian surname of the Jewish Bible, Tanakh).
But an examination of these forced matchings reveals a lot of inconsistencies.
1. The author of the Gospel of Matthew says that the announcement of the angel to Joseph: "Do not be afraid to take Mary to be your wife: for it is by the Holy Spirit that she has conceived. She will have a son, and you will name him Jesus " happened in order to fulfill the prophecy of Isaiah which says: "a virgin will become pregnant,... etc." (Matthew 1, 20-23).
Now what is the passage in question? Isaiah 7, 14-16: "... a young woman who is pregnant will have a son and will name him Immanuel. By the time he is old enough to make his own decisions, He will be feeding himself with curds and honey. Even before that time comes, the land of those two kings who terrify you will be deserted."
- The first error: Isaiah does not say "virgin" (Betoula in Hebrew) , as claimed by Matthew, but, "young girl" (Alma), which is not necessarily the same thing.
- 2nd error, Isaiah does not say that this girl will become pregnant but he says she is pregnant.
One can easily imagine all the differences that can be established between these two sentences: Young girl is not necessarily synonymous with virgin and the present tense does not necessarily express the same idea as the future tense. We see in the text of Isaiah that he speaks instead of a one-time and imminent event , Jerusalem was under the threat of foreign armies, God reassured the king, saying Israel should not fear his enemies and that these enemies, not only will be defeated, but before the child Emmanuel knows distinguish good and evil, the enemies territory would be abandoned. The girl then seems already pregnant when the prophet speaks with the king. However, this text can not be applied to Jesus for simple reasons:
* There was no war during the growth of Jesus, however it is during the growth of Emmanuel that the war of liberation was to intervene.
* No enemy territory has been abandoned;
* The son of Joseph and Mary was not even called Emmanuel, but Jesus
* We were not reported that he fed himself with cream and honey as Emmanuel had to do.
2. The same text of Matthew says that the prophecy "And he will be called Emmanuel" (Es.7, 14) is fulfilled with the announcement of the angel. But, what says the angel? "... She will have a son, and you will name him Jesus"
In term of names, is being called Jesus the equivalent of being called Emmanuel? These names are different, whether by the meaning, or by form and also by sound and logically indicate different people.
3. When the same Matthew added that the alleged massacre of male children by Herod (Matthew 2, 16-18) was made to accomplish the passage from Jeremiah, "Rachel is crying for her children" (Jer 31, 16-17), this is not fair, because for Jeremy, it is exiled children and not massacred children .
4. It does not seem very wise for Acts 2, 31 appliying to Jesus the prayer that David said: "... You will not abandon me to the world of the dead. ..." (Psalms 16, 10). How can one apply this text to Jesus while the verse continue saying: "You will show me the path that leads to life, etc.."? Could Jesus who called himself the path, the truth and the life pray like that?
5. Furthermore, when Jesus said: "I am thirsty" John saw here the fulfillment of Psalm 69, 22, without worrying that the same person who speaks of thirst also says: "... O God, You know my sinful acts, etc.. " (Is. 69, 5)Would Jesus have had sinful acts? Did the fact that Jesus was thirsty require to go search for any text to apply to him so clumsily?
6. Similarly, when the author of the Epistle to the Hebrews says that G. said of Jesus: "I will be a father to him" this is not fair, because the text speaks very clearly of Solomon. The same verse also says then: "If he makes mistakes, I will punish him with the rod of men and with the stripes of men." It must be that Jesus, contrary to Christian opinion, has made mistakes or was likely to commit them for being applied this verse. That is the curious way in which the New Testament writers have tried to make connections between their work and the Tanakh.